13-03-2019, 02:15 PM
No, I can't see any logical reason for it.
OK, when C1 is fully charged so that no current flows in the diode (but see below) a small current can still flow via R3 to charge C1 to a slightly higher voltage, but it isn't necessary. C1, being an electrolytic, will have a slight leakage current but it doesn't make any difference if this is supplied via the diode or R3. The effect on the operation of the circuit will be the same in either case (negligible!).
The only possible reason for R3 is that, if R2 is reduced to a lower value, the diode will be reversed biased so R3 could allow C1 to discharge to the new value set by R2, but it would be a long time constant!
OK, when C1 is fully charged so that no current flows in the diode (but see below) a small current can still flow via R3 to charge C1 to a slightly higher voltage, but it isn't necessary. C1, being an electrolytic, will have a slight leakage current but it doesn't make any difference if this is supplied via the diode or R3. The effect on the operation of the circuit will be the same in either case (negligible!).
The only possible reason for R3 is that, if R2 is reduced to a lower value, the diode will be reversed biased so R3 could allow C1 to discharge to the new value set by R2, but it would be a long time constant!






